All-Russian Olympiad for Schoolchildren 17 18 English. All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English

9-11 grades 2014

ATTENTION! It is forbidden to bring into the audience any means of mobile communication (mobile phones, pagers, etc. equipment), players, etc.

It is FORBIDDEN to use dictionaries and reference books!

Participants should be seated in such a way that they do not see the work of other participants.

All instructions for participants before holding written competitions are given in Russian.

Before the start of the written competitions, the senior member of the jury in the audience conducts a general briefing. The following points must be noted in the briefing:

1. Before the start of the written competition, announce:

• About the duration of the competition.

Listening comprehension: 8 minutes.

Integrated reading and listening: 7 minutes.

Reading comprehension: 25 minutes.

Use of English: 60 minutes.

Writing: 50 minutes.

• It is not recommended to leave the audience during the competition. Access to the toilet is allowed only one at a time. At this time, the participant submits his work to the jury members on duty. The time of absence is recorded on the answer sheet. If a contestant has questions during the competition, you can raise your hand and wait for a jury member to come up and answer the contestant's question.Jury members cannot answer questions related to the text of the task. During the Listening and Integrated reading and listening contests, you may not leave the audience and ask any questions.

2. After the general introductory part, the jury members distribute answer sheets (in the Writing competition, the task is written on the answer sheet). The senior member of the jury in the audience conducts a briefing onthe order of the answer sheets:

• The answer sheet indicates: participant number.
• On the answer sheet categorically it is forbidden to indicate names, make drawings or make any marks.
• Draft paper handed outonly in the Writing competition, in other competitions, a sheet with a task can be used as a draft.
• Written work is written only in black or blue ink. Red, green, etc. are prohibited. You can not write with a pencil and make pencil marks in the text.
• Nothing can be abbreviated in writing. All abbreviations will be treated as spelling errors.
• It should be written legibly, disputed cases (o / a) are not interpreted in favor of the participant.
• No smearing with correction fluid, erasing should not be done. If you need to correct, you can carefully cross out the wrong answer.

3. After the instructions for filling out the answer sheet, a text with the task is distributed and the start time of the competition is written on the board.

1. 15 and 5 minutes before the end of work:

• Remind them of the remaining time and warn of the need for a thorough check of the work.
• Remind that the members of the jury must be given answer sheets, texts of tasks / drafts.
• Remind that all answers should be transferred to the answer sheets, since the texts of tasks / drafts are not checked.
• Strictly follow so that the texts of assignments, answer sheets and drafts are not taken out of the audience.

When handing over work, carefully check:

• availability of all issued answer sheets.
• availability of all issued texts of assignments.
• the absence of extraneous marks in the answer sheet.

The English Olympiad consists of 5 parts :

1. listening comprehension competition;
2. Competition for understanding written and listened to texts (Integrated Reading and Listening);
3. competition of understanding of the written text (Reading Comprehension);
4. lexical and grammatical test (Use of English);

4) writing competition (Writing).

For each correct answer, the participant receives one point. The writing competition is estimated at 20 points (Writing - 20 points).

The maximum number of points is 110.

Students record their answers on answer sheets. Answer sheet ), which are issued to each participant of the Olympiad. The task from the Writing section is performed on the form of the task itself. Neither on the Answer sheet nor on the assignment form in the Writing section of the student's first and last name NOT are written. Each participant enters his identification number, which is assigned to him before writing the Olympiad.

Spelling errors in tasks are taken into account, if there is a spelling error in the answer sheet, the point for the correct answer is not awarded.

Part 1. Listening Comprehension Contest

When conducting an comprehension competition of the listened text (section Listening ) you need:

1. give participants 1 minute to familiarize themselves with the first task;
2. enable recording (track #1);
3. give participants 1 minute to familiarize themselves with the second task;
4. enable recording (track #2);

Part 2. Competition understanding of the read and listened text (Integrated Reading and Listening)

For this competition, you must:

1. give participants 2 minutes to read the text and familiarize themselves with the task;
2. enable recording (track #3);
3. give participants 50 seconds to review their responses;
4. play record (track no. 3) a second time;
5. Give participants 2 minutes to transfer their answers to the answer sheet.

Part 3 Reading Comprehension Competition

According to the complexity of the tasks, they correspond to the level B2 + (complicated advanced threshold level) and C1 (Advanced - Level of professional knowledge). It is assumed that at this level of language proficiency, the participant of the Olympiad should be able to:

• understand articles and messages on contemporary issues;
• to separate information important for understanding the text from secondary;
• understand the position of the author of the text;
• be able to establish a connection between the previous information and the next.

The texts may contain up to 2-3% of unfamiliar words, ignorance of which should not interfere with understanding the text and completing tasks.

Part 4. Lexico-grammar test (Use of English)

In all, for each correct answer, the participant receives 1 point.

The maximum number of points for the vocabulary and grammar test is 50.

The second part (Use of English) includes tasks that correspond to the complicated advanced threshold level of difficulty B2+ and C1 according to the scale of the Council of Europe. Participants of the Olympiad must demonstrate the appropriate level of proficiency in lexical material and the ability to operate with it. It also checks the mastery of grammar material within the framework of the secondary school program and the ability to practically use it not only at the level of a single sentence, but also in a wider context.

Part 5. Writing Contest (Writing)

In the writing round assignment, students are asked to write an article for a magazine based on a feature film announcement and a commentary 220 - 250 words. To complete the assignment, you must be creative and try to write an original article.

Allotted for the task 50 minutes.

The proposed genre of written assignment tests the skills of writing a productive letter, the ability to competently, logically and consistently describe events, while showing originality in creating and building a plot.

When evaluating a written work, the following criteria are taken into account: content, composition, vocabulary, grammar and spelling (see the scale with the evaluation criteria of the "Writing" part).

ATTENTION! Checking written workincludes the following steps:

1) frontal check of one (randomly selected and photocopied for all members of the jury) work;

2) discussion of the grades given in order to develop a balanced verification model;

3) individual check of works: each work is checked without fail by two members of the jury independently of each other (each member of the jury receives a clean copy of the work without any marks). In the event of a significant discrepancy between the grades (5 points or more), another check is assigned, the "controversial" works are checked and discussed collectively.

In terms of complexity, the tasks correspond to the threshold level B2 (Upper-Intermediate - Threshold Advanced Level) and C1 (Advanced - Level of Professional Proficiency) on the scale of the Council of Europe.

1. It is assumed that at this level of language proficiency, the participant of the Olympiad should be able to:

• write coherent texts of complex structure on various topics;
• describe and explain the events that took place or fictional events in a logical and chronological sequence, state clearly and clearly the totality of facts or phenomena;
• present and correctly compose the plot;
• create logically related text in accordance with the given genre and style parameters.

2. In a good article, a small number of spelling, grammatical or lexical errors are allowed (see evaluation criteria).

3. In written work, the originality of the solution of the set communicative task is encouraged.

4. Criteria for evaluating written speech consist of two blocks: assessment for content (maximum 10 points) and assessment for text design (maximum 10 points).

For exceeding the volume of the essay by no more than 10%, points are not reduced. In the event that the written work of the participant has less than 40% of the volume specified in the task, the work is not evaluated, because. the communicative task is considered unfulfilled (for more details, see the evaluation criteria).

Summarizing:

For each participant, the points received for each competition are summed up (16+12+12+50+20=110).

The winner is the participant with the most points.

Preview:

Preview:

Municipal stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English, 2014

9-11 grades

Part 1. Listening Comprehension

task 1. You will hear a conversation. For items 1-10 , decide whether the statements marked 1-10 True (A) or False (B) according to the text you hear. You will hear the recording only once .

1. The man was driving home after a party in the small hours.

1. The man heard a very loud noise.

1. The flying saucer was about half a kilometer ahead of the man.

1. At first, the man thought that he had seen an airplane.

1. The man was so frightened that he drove as far away from the UFO as he could.

1. The man says he has seen an extraterrestrial.

1. The beast was huge and hairy.

1. The beast wanted to take the man to his master.

1. The alien could speak English.

1. The flying saucer was diamond-shaped.

Task 2. Listen to the conversation ‘Healthy Lifestyle’ and choose the best answer A, B or C to questions 11-16 according to what you hear. You will hear the recording only once .

11. Which sentence is not true?

A) The man likes to eat when watching TV.

B) The man is organizing a company basketball team.

C) The man was one of the best basketball players 25 years ago.

12. What is the woman worried about?

A) Her husband is not very healthy.

B) Her husband will spend a lot of time away from home.

C) Her husband will become a fitness freak.

13. What does the woman say?

A) Her husband has once had a heart attack.

B) Her husband needs a check-up.

C) Her husband should give up the idea of ​​playing basketball.

14. What kind of diet does the woman recommend?

A) He should consume fewer fatty foods.

B) He should eat more carbohydrates.

C) He should cut down on eating lots of fruits and vegetables.

15. What doesn't the woman suggest doing?

A) cycling

B) weight training

C) jogging

16. Why should the man start training?

A) To make the muscles and the heart stronger.

B) To lose weight.

C) To take part in an annual body building contest.

integrated reading and listening

task 1. Read the text, then listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic. You will notice that some ideas coincide and some differ in them. Answer questions 1-12 by choosing A if the idea is expressed in both materials, B if it can be found only in the reading text, C if it can be found only in the audio-recording, and D if neither of the materials expresses the idea.

Now you have 2 minutes to read the text.

For many years, scientists have known that music can help soothe babies. Then they discovered that listening to music, Mozart in particular, can help babies in ways they hadn’t imagined before. The phenomenon, called the Mozart Effect, was found to have positive benefits on intelligence and creativity.

In one study, psychologists gave study participants three tests. During each of the tests, the participants of the study listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. The results of the study showed that all of the participants scored better on the tests after listening to Mozart. On average, the participants added about nine points to their IQ after listening to Mozart.

The Mozart Effect also affects the creativity of babies. In his book, American author Don Campbell described how playing Mozart for babies before they are born can help them become more creative as adults. According to Campbell, the music helped stimulate their mental development. By the time the babies were born, they were already more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. His argument was so strong that some hospitals decided to give all new mothers CDs of Mozart's music.

Now listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic and then do the task (questions 1-12), comparing the text above and the lecture. You will hear the lecture twice.

1. Music can calm babies down.

2. The Mozart Effect has a good impact on children's intelligence and creativity.

3. The study involved three tests.

4. One group of the test-takers did not listen to any music at all.

5. The test-takers were college students.

6. A molecular basis for the Mozart Effect has recently been revealed.

7. The extra nine points, added to the IQs of those who listened to Mozart, disappeared after 15 minutes.

8. Rats, like humans, perform better on learning and memory tests after listening to a Mozart sonata.

9. The Mozart Effect has not been scientifically proven.

10. Don Campbell's book The Mozart Effect has condensed the world's research on all beneficial effects of certain types of music.

11. Some hospitals gave new mothers CDs of Mozart's music.

12. The theory of the Mozart Effect was a marketing tool.

Reading Comprehension

task 1. Read the following newspaper article. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs the one, which fits each gap(1-5) best of all. There are two extra sentences which you do not need to use.

Don't Worry Be Happy

One of my many faults has been my tendency at times to attempt to cross a difficult bridge before I have come to it. 1) ____________ I will tell you of an example of this sort of experience which overtook me many years ago and of which I was reminded just recently.

In the early Sixties, the British India Steam Navigation Company embarked upon a project to offer educational cruises to pupils of secondary and junior schools in Britain, a project which turned out to be very popular, and I was invited to be the Protestant chaplain on the second of the early cruises.

I was pleased to accept since it was during my month's holiday from my church. 2) ______ I was being regaled by kindly friends with stories of how badly seasick passengers could become if it was stormy - as it often was - when sailing through the Bay of Biscay, which our ship would be navigating on its way to the Mediterranean.

I decided to seek help. 3) _____________ To my surprise and disappointment, he laughed ruefully.

"I"m afraid I can offer you no help at all. I was seasick every single time we left port during my service days!"

My anxieties proved needless. four) _______________ It was different on our homeward voyage, with a force ten gale through Biscay. Many of my fellow passengers were seasick, but to my surprise and relief I was not in the least upset by the stormy conditions and the violent movements of the ship. 5) ____________ I had tortured myself needlessly, by trying to cross bridges before I came to them.

A Then I began to worry a bit, as I had never yet been to sea.

B People can cause themselves considerable pain and nervous tension by trying to cope in

Advance with the anxiety of an impending serious threat, for instance a major operation

Or some other calamity.

C The weather on our outward voyage was marvelously sunny all the way and the Bay of

Biscay was perfectly calm.

D As a result, I have invariably suffered totally unnecessary stress and strain, of no benefit

Either to myself or to anyone else.

E All my forebodings proved completely unfounded.

F I had a friend who had commanded a frigate in the war, and I asked him to advise me

What measures I might take to prevent seasickness.

G I once had an acquaintance who refused to take out an insurance policy or prepare for the future.

Task 2. Read the following newspaper article and answer questions 6-11 by choosing A, B, C, or D. Give only one answer to each question.

UP Up and AWAY

You may remember King Kong on the Empire State Building in the film, where a comparison is implied between the then highest building in the world (at 380m) and the giant, menacing ape. Ever since the Tower of Babel, man has liked to think big in terms of building. Whether it be by constructing pyramids, ziggurats or palaces (while, perhaps paradoxically, living in huts and hovels), he has had an urge to reach for the sky and it is this that has led to the twentieth/twenty-first century craze for skyscrapers. Indeed, thrusting aggressively into the sky like rockets about to take off, these structures seem to mimic our passion for space exploration.

In order for modern skyscrapers to be a practical possibility, however, something had to happen. That was the invention of the lift, by Elisha Graves Otis, in 1854. Three years later, it was put to commercial use in New York and buildings higher than five stores became feasible for the first time.

The first high-rise constructions were not skyscrapers as we would recognize them today, but merely taller than average buildings. In 1899, however, the Park Row office block was constructed with a steel frame, and this led to new techniques where the form of the building is skeletal, with the main loading being located in the central core and the external “curtain wall” constructed of lightweight materials, for instance glass and aluminium. This substitution of lighter materials for concrete made it possible for architects to design buildings of 400 to 500m in height. Having said that, it should be borne in mind that the tallest building in the world is currently Petronas Towers, rising 452m above Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia and that it is also the tallest concrete structure in the world.

Getting higher and higher with the development of relevant technology, skyscrapers are a fair indication of economic trends, going up during the boom years only to come to a standstill when recessions cut off funds. For this reason, the 1980s heralded a wave of skyscraper building while the less promising 1990s slowed it down. Furthermore, the bulk of the building work has moved from its home in the USA (Chicago being the birthplace of the skyscraper) to Asia, reflecting the new power, prestige and confidence of the growing tiger economies. It is, therefore, no wonder that Kuala Lumpur's Petronas Towers superseded Chicago's Sear's Tower, which at 443m had been the tallest building in the world for 22 years, in 1998.

The New World is, consequently, fighting back against this competition from the Pacific Rim, with plans for Chicago South Dearborn project (610m), to be completed by 2003. Europe, on the other hand, seems to have opted out of the race altogether , the planned London Millennium Tower being scaled down from a projected 486m to 386m because otherwise people would consider it too tall! Europe’s current highest building, Commerzbank headquarters in Frankfurt, is, at 261m, no match for the American and Asian giants, and neither is London’s Canary Wharf (236m) which was the highest building in Europe until 1997. Asian giants in the pipeline are Tokyo’s Millennium Tower at 840m and Hong Kong’s Bionic Tower at a staggering 1,128m.

Asia and America may be experiencing an urge to push ever upwards, but there are sound reasons that have nothing to do with economy or lack of ambition, for keeping tall buildings to the 400 to 500m mark. Heights exceeding that present logistical problems, such as how to transport large numbers of people up and down the building, such as how to minimize wind sway (which may be as much as 3 meters (9 ft) in either direction, especially in the home of the skyscraper 'windy city,' Chicago!) and how to find investors to rent space in the middle, assuming that the bottom will fill with shops and the top with hotels and observation towers. Experts, however, are working on two of these problems, experimenting with different kinds of lift and conducting extensive wind tunnel tests to help eliminate wind-induced sway.

In times of economic austerity, though, can we really afford to build these energy-intensive structures? Well, they are in several respects eco-friendly, providing a lot of office space on relatively little land, concentrating several services in one place and reducing overspill into green belts.

However, it is no mean feat to equip skyscrapers with renewable sources of energy, as ideas such as covering the facade with photo-voltaic cells to convert light energy into electricity are extremely expensive. Street-level winds, however, may be utilised to power turbines which generate electricity within the buildings, and there specific plans for a citygate ecotower in London (456m), which would derive half of its energy sources from solar and wind power.

So, what will the future hold for skyscrapers? Will they change the face and the skyline of our cities just to make a point, as it were? Who knows? Even today, though, King Kong would be spoiled for choice.

6. Why does the author mention King Kong?

A. To remind the reader of the famous film.

b. To show the size of the building.

C. To prove that today King Kong would not be a good choice.

D. Because King Kong was a menacing ape.

7. The author states that people like to build big because

A it compensates for their inability to travel in space.

In it is rooted in our history.

FROM it seems to be an innate desire.

D they like to live in pyramids and palaces.

8. The modern skyscraper was first made possible by

A a device invented in the nineteenth century.

AT buildings more than 5 stores high.

FROM the steel-frame building technique.

D a commercial building in New York.

9. Skyscrapers are a mirror of

A the tiger economies.

In Asian power.

With building trends.

D economic trends.

10. What is the European attitude towards very high buildings?

A More enthusiastic than American and Asian ones.

In Competitive and aggressive.

With A lack of ambition.

D Not particularly enthusiastic.

11. Why are so many skyscrapers no more than 400 - 500m tall?

A Because people like them that way.

AT Because investors don't want them taller.

FROM Because taller buildings present specific problems.

D Because the middle floors cannot be let easily.

12. In ecological terms, skyscrapers today

A are too expensive and energy intensive.

B are always eco-friendly.

FROM cannot be heated by alternative energy.

D are of some benefit to the environment.

USE OF ENGLISH

task 1. For questions 1-15 read the text about school calendars in America. Solve the crossword puzzle by replacing the underlined words or word combinations with their synonyms. The (0 down ) and (00 across ) in the beginning of the text have been done as examples to help you.

Today we continue our discussion of school calendars as a new American school year(0 down ) starts.

Some people say the (00 across) conventional calendar of one hundred and eight days no longer meets the(1 down) requirements of American society. They point out that students in most other industrial countries are in school more hours a day and more days a year.

Critics also say a long summer vacation causes students to forget much of what they learned.

Schools are under pressure to raise test scores. Some have changed their calendars to try to improve students' results. They have(2 across) extended the school day or added days to the year or both.

This can be (3 down) expensive if schools need air conditioning on hot days and school(4 across) staff need to be paid for the extra time.

Local businesses may object to a longer school year because students are unable to work long in summer jobs.

Some schools have a year round(5 down) program . The school year is extended over twelve months. Instead of a long vacation, there are many short ones.

The National Association of Year-Round Education says almost five percent of public school students(6 down) go to year-round schools. It says almost all of the states have some public schools that are open all year.

Some parts of the country had year-round programs in the nineteenth century, mostly for economic reasons. They felt it wasted money to use school(7 down) buildings for only part of the year. Some(8 across) teachers think year-round education gives(9 across) help and encouragement to students from poor families who(10 down) do not have much financial assistance at home as their parents might not have permanent(11 across ) work.

Year-round (12 across ) education can also (13 across ) decrease crowding in schools. In one version, students attend school for nine weeks and then have three weeks off. The students are in groups that are not all in school at the same time.

Another year-round calendar has all students in school together for nine weeks and off for three. This is meant to(14 across ) supply the continuous learning that can be lost over a long break. And the main purpose of schools is to improve students’(15 across ) achievements .

But year-round schooling has opponents. They say it can cause problems for when they want to make summer plans. And they say it interferes with activities outside school – including summer employment.

Some experts say no really good studies have been done to measure the effect of school calendars on performance.

Task 2.For questions16-30 , complete the text with the words from the box. You may use one word more than once. Write the letterA-Mfor the word you choose in the box below the text.

My mother always told us “there is no use crying over spilt16) ____.” That means you should not get angry when something bad happens and cannot be changed.

​People said my mother was "a good17) _____.” She would always help anyone in need.

We never had to walk on18) ______” around her – we did not have to be careful about what we said or did because she never got angry with us.

She also told us “you have to break some eggs to make an19) _____.” This means you have to do what is necessary to move forward.

My mother believed "you are what you are20) _____” – a good diet is important for good health. She would always give us nutritious food. She liked serving us meat and potatoes for dinner. “Meat and potatoes” can also mean the most important part of something. It describes someone who likes simple things.

Here is another expression about meat: “one man's meat is another man's21) ____.” In other words, one person might like something very much while another person might hate the same thing.

My father was also a good and honest person. People said he was “the22) ____ of the earth.” He would never "pour"23) ____ on a wound” – or make someone feel worse about something that was already a painful experience.

However, sometimes he told us a story that seemed bigger than life. So we had to take it with a24) ____ of salt” – that is, we could not believe everything he told us.

My husband has a good job. He makes enough money to support our family. So we say "he brings home the25) _____.”

He can't cut the26) _____” – or do what is expected of him at work.

It is easy to find my husband in a crowd. He stands almost two meters tall. He is “a tall drink of water.”

I take the train to work. It is not a pleasant ride because the train can be full of people. It is so crowded that we are “packed like”27) _____” – just like small fish in a can.

When we fail to see problems at work, my supervisor tells us to “wake up and smell the28) ____” – we need to pay more attention and fix the problem.

I once made a big mistake at the office and felt foolish. I had"29) ____ on my face.”

Over the weekend, my friend invited me to watch a football game on television. But I don't like football. It is not my cup of30) ____.”

We hope we have given you “food for thought” – that is, something to think about.

task 3.For tasks31-40 , change the word given in capitals on the right in such a way that it can fit the text lexically and grammatically.

Task 4.For questions41-50 , think ofone wordonly which can be used appropriatelyin all three sentences.

41. ● I need more ………………………….…… at using this computer program.

● I am worried about my interview because I’m a bit out of …………..……… .

● The …………..……… of dumping the waste into the river has to be stopped.

42. ● Her teeth were …………….... after she’d worn braces on them for two years.

● He managed to speak with a steady, …….………voice, despite the fact that he was furious with them.

● Make sure the surface is ……………..….. before you put up the wall paper.

43. ● The ………………..… with him is that he doesn’t have any patience.

● She went to a lot of ………………..… to prepare the meal.

● She’s had a lot of back ……………..…. lately and will have to have an operation.

44. ● He is very ………………….. with money.

● That's a …………………. thing to do.

● The ……………….... annual temperature is 25ºC.

45. ● She began to ………………….…… the milk into the sauce.

● He was in a deep sleep and didn’t …………………..….. once all night.

● The book seemed to ……………………..….. him profoundly.

46. ​​●You can carry this box; it's ……………………………. .

● She bought a beautiful …………………………. blue dress.

●There was a ……………………..…. knock at the door.

47. ● Her house was very close to the local rubbish ……………………..…. .

● Let me give you a …………………....: you need to get some legal advice.

●She left a ………………….…. on the table for the waiter.

48. ● He …………………………... on you for support.

● She …………………………. Angela as one of her closest friends.

● It’s a person’s character that ………………………… not their appearance.

49. ●They haven’t……….. a date for the wedding, but it will be sometime next spring.

● His arm isn't straight because the doctor didn't ……………….…. it properly.

● If you make the salad, I’ll …………………………..… the table.

50. ●Too much criticism is hard to …………………..…….. .

● Oh, you know how silly he is. He’ll……………..…. any old story, no matter how unbelievable it is.

● The cost of private education will …………….…. up your savings in no time.

Writing

task 1.The editor of a student magazine, publishing a series of articles on different cultural events at your school, has asked you to contribute an article to it. You have decided to write about the filmThe Identicalyou saw last week with your family.

Read the film advertisement and handwritten notes prepared for the article. Then, using the information appropriately, write your article for the magazine.

Remember to:

● include a title;

● use an appropriate style;

● make a critical evaluation and analysis of the event;

● recommend what should be done to make this kind of event better and more acceptable for school children and their families.

Write220-250 words.

The text of the advertisement or any of its parts should not be copied in your article, USE YOUR OWN WORDS AND EXPRESSIONS.

Time: 50 minutes

Film Advertisement

Started much laterBrilliant actinggood choice

No ice-creamtoo muchtoo shortInteresting, but not dynamic enough

Some songs are sillyNo Elvis music is heard

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

YOU CAN USE THE REVERSE SIDE

Preview:

task 1.

Police Officer: Hello. 24th Precinct. Officer Jones speaking.

Man: Help. Yeah, uh, it was wild, I mean really bizarre.

Police Officer: Calm down sir! Now, what do you want to report?

Man: Well, I'd like to report a UFO sighting.

Police Officer: And what?

Man: What do you mean "what?" An unidentified flying object!

Police Officer: Wait, tell me exactly what you saw.

Man: Well, I was driving home from a party about three hours ago, so it was about 2:00 AM, when I saw this bright light overhead.

Police Officer: Okay. And then what happened?

Man: Oh man. Well, it was out of this world. I stopped to watch the light when it disappeared behind a hill about a kilometer ahead of me.

Police Officer Alright. Then what?

Man: Well, I got back in my car and I started driving towards where the UFO landed.

Police Officer: Now, how do you know it was a UFO? Perhaps you only saw the lights of an airplane , or the headlights of an approaching car . Things like that happen, you know.

Man: Well if it was that, how do you explain "the BEAST"?

Police Officer: What do you mean, "the BEAST"?

Man: Okay. I kept driving for about five minutes when all of a sudden, this giant, hairy creature jumped out in front of my car.

Police Officer: Oh, yeah.

Man: Well, then, the beast picked up the front of my car and said, "Get out of the car. I"m taking you to my master!"

Police Officer: Wow? A hairy alien who can speak English! Come on!

Man: I "m not making this up, if that"s what you"re suggesting. Then, when I didn't get out of the car, the beast opened the car door, carried me on his shoulders to this round-shaped flying saucer, and well, that's when I woke up along side the road. The beast must have knocked me out and left me there.

Police Officer: Well, that "s the best story I" ve heard all night, sir. Now, have you been taking any medication, drugs, or alcohol in the last 24 hours? You mentioned you went to a party.

Man: What? Well, I did have a few beers, but I "m telling the truth.

Police Officer: Okay, okay. We have a great therapist that deals with THESE kinds of cases.

Man: "Humph" What do you mean "Humph." I was the star player in high school.

Woman: Yeah, twenty-five years ago. Look, I just don't want you having a heart attack running up and down the court.

Man:So what are you suggesting? Should I justabandon the idea? I "m not thatout of shape .

Woman: well. . . you ought to at least have aphysical before you start. I mean, it HAS been at least five years since you played at all.

Man:Well, okay, but . . .

Woman: And you need to watch your diet andcut back on the fatty foods, like ice cream. And you should try eating more fresh fruits and vegetables.

Man: Yeah, you're probably right.

Woman: And you shouldtake up a little weight training to strengthen your muscles or perhaps try cycling to build up yourcardiovascular system . Oh, and you need to go to bed early instead of watching TV half the night.

Man: Hey, you"re starting to sound like my personal fitness instructor!

Woman: No, I just love you, and I want you to be around for a long, long time.

Task 3. Integrated reading and listening

Today let's talk about the effect of music on babies. There’s the theory about the so-called Mozart Effect, which refers to the supposedly increased performance of babies after listening to Mozart. But the claims made in the book have been challenged and disproved by a number of other studies. Let me tell you about them.

First, let's talk about a study often referred to that supports the Mozart Effect where the participants took three different tests. While the test-takers were completing the test, they listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. Well, what is often left out is that the test-takers in the study were not babies at all – they were college students. Which explains why they were able to take the tests in the first place, right? Anyway, even if we decide to overlook the fact that we’re talking about college students, the effects mentioned in the study were also not long-lasting. The extra nine points that were added to their IQs after listening to Mozart went away after about 15 minutes.

Another claim made is that listening to Mozart makes children more creative. It even says that if you play Mozart for babies before they are born, they will be born more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. But there is no actual scientific proof of any of this. Since the theory of the Mozart Effect has become popular, claims like this have been made over and over again, mostly to help sell expecting parents CDs of classical music. But, until some proof is reported, we have to consider such claims as nothing more than marketing tools.

Talent Development Center "Mega-Talent" offers to take part in the All-Russian Olympiad in English. The mission of the SDG "Mega-Talent" is to reveal the abilities for knowledge and learning. Our educational activities help pupils and students in their studies and personal development.

MDG "Mega-Talent" is:

• More than 400 successful Olympiads in 47 school subjects.
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• 2.5 million rubles of paid compensation for organizational expenses.
• A community of educators united by a common goal.

Moving towards the teacher

We strive to reduce difficulties and destroy obstacles! That is why we have simplified everything to 5 simple steps in organizing and holding the Olympiad.

1. The teacher gets access to assignments for all classes and conducts an Olympiad.
2. Pupils receive well-deserved diplomas, and teachers receive certificates and gratitude.
3. Organizational expenses are reimbursed.
4. The most active teachers receive prizes every month.
5. At all stages of the Olympiad, the teacher can contact the support service for help.

Remote All-Russian and International Olympiads from the CRT "Mega-Talent" in English

The remote format has many advantages. The teacher can hold the Olympiad on the basis of his educational institution, thereby ensuring maximum comfort for the participants. Such a "home" environment allows pupils and students to fully concentrate on the tasks of the Olympiad.

All assignments are based on school curriculum, and the Olympiad itself adheres to the high standards of the Federal State Educational Standard. Such an event is a great opportunity for both the teacher and the student to prove themselves.

Each class has its own set of tasks consisting of 15 questions. Among them:

• Test tasks
• Questions involving the analysis of the proposed data
• Working with illustrative materials
• Exclusion and matching questions

The cost of participation in the Olympiad in English

The registration fee is set separately for each Olympiad. Up to 30% of the registration fee is returned to the teacher in the form of compensation for organizational expenses: printing assignments, diplomas, certificates, etc. More information about how the compensation amount is calculated can be found at the time of application.

How often are English Olympiads held?

In total, there are three seasons of the All-Russian Olympiads (autumn, winter and spring), three international seasons, which are held in the intervals between the All-Russian ones, as well as the final Olympiad at the end of the year. The teacher can choose the period that suits him and hold the Olympiad at a convenient time for himself. You can read more about what events are taking place right now.on the schedule page of the MDG "Mega-Talent" .

How are results determined?

After the Olympiad, the teacher enters the answers of the participants in his personal account. The system processes this data and determines the winners. Along with this, all award materials become available: diplomas of winners, certificates of participants, as well as a corresponding certificate for the teacher.

How to organize an Olympiad for your schoolchildren or students?

1. A registered user of STC "Mega-Tallant" submits an application for participation and confirms it by paying the registration fee.
2. During the period of issuing tasks, the user downloads the tasks of the Olympiad in his personal account.
3. Assignments are printed and the Olympiad is held.
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1 ALL-RUSSIAN OLYMPIAD FOR SCHOOLCHILDREN IN ENGLISH in English Moscow

2 Under the general editorship of Yu.B. Kurasovskaya The group of authors,

3 Contents Contents... 3 Introduction... 4 Principles of compiling Olympiad tasks and forming sets of Olympiad tasks for the school stage... 5 Criteria for evaluating competitions... 9 Logistics of competitions List of reference materials, means of communication and electronic computing techniques allowed for use during the Olympiad Sample packages of Olympiad tasks for the school stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English Set of tasks for students in grades 5-6 Set of tasks for students in grades 7-8 Set of tasks for students in grades 9-11 List of recommended literature and sites Guidelines for the development of requirements for the school stage of the Olympiad

4 Introduction These guidelines were prepared by the central subject-methodological commission in English to assist the relevant methodological commissions and the jury in compiling assignments and conducting the school stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English in the regions Russian Federation. Methodological materials contain recommendations on the order of conducting Olympiads in English, requirements for the structure and content of Olympiad tasks, recommended sources of information for preparing tasks, as well as recommendations for evaluating the answers of participants in Olympiads. When compiling the Requirements for holding the school stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English, one should rely on the Procedure for holding the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren, approved by the order of the Ministry of Education and Science of Russia dated November 18, 2013 and on the Order of the Ministry of Education and Science of the Russian Federation dated "On Amendments to the Procedure for Conducting the All-Russian Olympiad for Schoolchildren ". The Central Subject-Methodological Commission on the English Language expresses the hope that the presented methodological recommendations will be useful in conducting the school stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for Schoolchildren in English, and wishes success to the organizers in their conduct. Recommendations for the school stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English in 2016/2017 approved at a meeting of the central subject-methodological commission for the English language (minutes 1 dated). Chairman of the Central Subject-Methodological Commission on the English Language S.G. Ter-Minasova Chairman of the Central Subject-Methodological Commission on the English Language Yu.B. Kurasovskaya 4

5 The principles of compiling Olympiad tasks and the formation of sets of Olympiad tasks for the school stage The main goals and objectives of the Olympiad are to identify and develop in students creativity and interest in the English language, creating the necessary conditions for supporting gifted children, promoting linguistic and sociocultural knowledge related to history and modern functioning various options English language and the history and culture of English-speaking countries. The tasks of the Olympiad should be of a problem-search nature and reveal the creative potential of the participant. The tasks of the Olympiad should not repeat the USE exam in English, but must meet all the requirements of the test tasks. The task of the school stage of the English Olympiad is to popularize the English language in schools, to attract as many students as possible to participate in the Olympiad, so the level of complexity of the tasks at this stage should not be overstated, the tasks should be interesting and feasible for students of the appropriate age groups. To ensure the comprehensive nature of testing the level of communicative competence of participants, it is recommended to hold the school stage of the Olympiad in four competitions: the competition for understanding oral speech (Listening), the competition for understanding written speech (Reading), the lexical and grammatical test (Use of English) the competition for writing (Writing). Due to the technical difficulties associated with the holding of the oral speech competition (Speaking), the central subject-methodical commission for the English language recommends that this competition not be held at the school stage. Participants of the Olympiad must be admitted to all four competitions (i.e. intermediate screening of participants is not recommended). 1. Level of difficulty of tasks 5

6 When preparing Olympiad tasks for the school stage, it is recommended to prepare three packages of tasks of different levels of complexity (to determine the objective level of complexity of the Olympiad, we can recommend a six-level model proposed by the Council of Europe 1): for grades 5-6 - the level of complexity of tasks is determined by the subject-methodological commission of the municipal stage Olympics, recommended level on the Council of Europe scale A1 - A2; for grades 7-8 - the level of difficulty of tasks is determined by the subject-methodical commission of the municipal stage of the Olympiad, the recommended level according to the scale of the Council of Europe is A2 B1; for grades 9-11 - the level of difficulty of tasks is determined by the subject-methodical commission of the municipal stage of the Olympiad, the recommended level according to the scale of the Council of Europe is B1 B2. When preparing tasks, it is recommended to combine tasks of different levels of complexity (i.e., combine more difficult and less difficult tasks so that participants can complete at least one Olympiad task). The difficulty levels of different tasks within the task package for the same age group should not differ by more than one step. 2. Recommendations for the selection of text materials Texts must meet the following requirements: be modern, authentic, thematically and socio-culturally adequate, the texts should not use profanity. It is recommended to use modern, authentic texts for the older age category (grades 9-11). For younger age categories (grades 5-8), adaptation of texts is recommended. The type and genre of the text must correspond to the tested speech skill. Their topics can be related to education, career choice and the life of the younger generation, while discursive and pragmatic parameters can be related to the current sociocultural situation in Russia or the countries of the language being studied, therefore their adequate understanding requires the contestants to possess sociocultural and sociolinguistic competencies at a testable level of complexity. 1 Common European Framework of Reference for Languages: Learning, Teaching, Assessment. MSLU,

7 During pre-test processing, abbreviations are allowed in the texts that do not lead to a distortion of the general meaning. The linguistic complexity of the texts should correspond to the chosen level of complexity and the task and the skill being tested, and the intellectual complexity of the proposed for solving extralinguistic tasks should correspond to the age of the participants in the Olympiad. The factors that make the text unacceptable for selection include: thematic: war, death, racial and religious intolerance; age: the topic does not fit into the circle of interests of the age group to which the text is oriented; socio-cultural: there is too much specific socio-cultural information in the text that the participants of the Olympiad do not have; linguistic: too high level language complexity year for the English language has a special sound. This is due to the fact that the British Council, with the support of the Ministry of Education and Science of the Russian Federation, declared 2016 the Year of British Language and Literature in Russia, timed to coincide with the 400th anniversary of the death of William Shakespeare. The main event of this year was the Shakespeareade, a series of lectures, creative tests and competitions dedicated to William Shakespeare. In this regard, it is recommended to connect part of the tasks of the school stage for grades 9-11 with the work of Shakespeare. 3. Methodological and technological correctness of compiling a package of tasks When compiling tasks for comprehension contests of oral and written text and a lexical and grammar test, it is recommended to use coherent texts, rather than separate sentences. It is recommended to use various types of tasks of the following types (i.e., it is recommended to combine tasks of different types within one task package): multiple choice: choice among three or four answer options, or choice of answer options from the proposed menu (list of options); alternative choice (correct/incorrect) or complicated alternative choice (correct/incorrect/not stated in the text); cross-selection (select pairs from two lists of units according to one or another proposed feature); 7

8 ordering (compose a coherent text from disparate sentences or paragraphs; restore the sequence of events presented in random order; insert missing sentences or parts of sentences into the text); transformation, replacement, substitution (when checking lexical and grammatical skills); completion of the statement (finding the missing component); answers to questions of closed and open type (short and detailed); intralingual paraphrasing (refers to the most productive types of test items, requires the compiler to clearly formulate the task); close procedure or close test (filling in the gaps in the text with words, articles, etc.). It is necessary to pay attention to the correctness of the wording of tasks: the wording should be complete, simple, accessible. The units being checked must have communicative value (should not be of an exotic nature). When compiling tasks for a writing competition, it is recommended to formulate tasks in the form of a specific communicative task. 4. The duration of the competitions The recommended total duration of all four competitions for grades 5-6 is from 45 to 60 minutes for grades 7-8 from 60 to 90 minutes for grades 9-11 from 90 to 120 minutes 5. The creative nature of the tasks All tasks of the Olympiad must be interesting for students and creatively oriented. The format of assignments should not be a simple repetition of the USE format. 6. Formation of a package of tasks When preparing the Olympiad tasks for the school stage, 3 packages of tasks are formed (for grades 5-6, 7-8 and 9-11). Each task package should include: 1. Text of tasks for four competitions, 2. Sheet of participant's answers, 3. Answers (keys) to tasks, 8

9 4. Audio recording for the oral speech comprehension competition, 5. Script (text) of the audio recording, 6. Criteria for evaluating competitions and scoring scheme for the school stage, 7. Methodological recommendations for holding competitions (duration of competitions, types of tasks, logistics of competitions ), 8. Protocol for evaluating the writing competition for experts. Sample task packages for grades 5-6, 7-8 and 9-11 are given below in these Guidelines. Evaluation criteria for competitions are developed in full accordance with the parameters of the task. The subject-methodological commission of the corresponding stage may introduce coefficients taking into account the complexity and number of tasks. For competitions of understanding of oral and written texts and for the lexicogrammatic test, automatic verification of works is possible. The criteria for evaluating productive types of speech activity (writing competition) require special attention from the jury of the Olympiad: the originality of the content and the completeness of the communicative task should be evaluated separately. In this competition, the procedure for evaluating written works is important and it is desirable to involve experienced experts to check written works. Evaluation of written speech is carried out according to the Evaluation Criteria compiled by the methodological commission and includes the following stages: frontal verification of one (randomly selected and photocopied for all experts) work; discussion of the grades given in order to develop a balanced review model; individual verification of works: each work is checked without fail by two experts who work independently of each other (no marks are allowed on the work), each expert enters his marks in his evaluation protocol; if the discrepancy in the assessments of experts does not exceed two points, then the average score is set. For example, if the first expert puts 9 points, and the second 8 points, the final mark is 9 points; if the first expert puts 9 points, and the second 7 points, the final mark is 8 points; 9

10 if the discrepancy in the assessments of experts is three or four points, then another check is assigned, in this case the two closest assessments are to be averaged; "Controversial" works (in case of a large discrepancy of 5 or more points) are checked and discussed collectively. For each participant, the points received for each competition are summed up. Logistical support of the competitions For the written competitions, auditoriums are required for the seating of participants. Participants should sit one by one at a table/desk and be at such a distance from each other so as not to see the work of a neighbor. All “working” classrooms should have clocks, since the execution of tests requires time control. Each classroom should have a computer and speakers (speakers) for listening. The auditorium must have good acoustics. The task of the oral text comprehension competition is recorded in MP3 format (audio file). In each classroom where the competition is held, there must be a necessary file with a record of the task on the desktop of the computer. The sound should be broadcast through the speakers. To conduct a lexical-grammatical test and a writing competition, no special technical means are required. In addition to the required number of question sets and answer sheets, there should be spare pens, spare question sets and spare answer sheets in the classroom. Drafting paper is required for the writing competition. Participants complete tasks with black helium pens, as in the future the work of the participants is scanned. ten

11 For writing competitions, it is required to multiply tasks and answer sheets (black and white print). The Central Subject and Methodological Commission asks to reproduce the assignment materials in A4 format (do not reduce the format). List of reference materials, means of communication and electronic computers allowed for use during the Olympiad Participants are not allowed to take paper, reference materials (dictionaries, reference books, textbooks, etc.), mobile phones, voice recorders, players, tablets and other technical means. All of the above means of communication are not allowed to be brought to the territory of the venue of the Olympiad. If the means of communication (even in the off state) are found at the participant of the Olympiad on the territory of the venue of the Olympiad, the chairman of the jury draws up an act of violation of the procedure for holding the Olympiad and the results of the participant are canceled. eleven

12 Sample packages of Olympiad tasks for the school stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English Attention! The presented variants of tasks are demonstration and cannot be used as working sets of tasks for the school stage of the Olympiad. For texts of assignments, it is recommended to use the A4 format, one and a half intervals, the font color is black, the font is Times New Roman, the font size is 14. A set of tasks for students in grades 5-6 LISTENING Time: 5 minutes For questions 1-5, listen to Carl, Linda and Sam phoning The Book Program and decide whether the information in the sentences is true (A) or false (B). You will hear the text twice. 1. Carl loved the Lord of the Rings films. A True B False 2. Linda says people read a lot. A True B False 3. Linda thinks people buy books after they see a film. A True B False 4. Sam thinks good books make bad films. A True B False 5. Sam preferred the James Bond books. A True B False Transfer your answers into the answer sheet! READING Time: 20 minutes 12

13 Task 1. Read the article about three schoolboys who go to different kinds of schools. For questions 1-8 choose the answer A, B or C. Steven My parents sent me to drama school when I was eight. It is the biggest drama school in the country. The school day begins at eight o clock. We do dance, music, theater or project work in the morning. After lunch, we change into our school uniform and have normal school lessons until 4.30 pm. Sometimes at the weekend we put on shows or have sports competitions with other schools. I love it! Martin My parents started teaching me at home when we moved to the countryside because my old school was too far away. I wake up at eight o clock and begin classes an hour later. In the mornings, my mum teaches me Maths and Science. In the afternoon, I do sports or Art with my dad. My weekends are free. I like home schooling because I can sometimes choose my own projects and I can wear what I like. Thomas I live in my school and I go home to see my parents in the holidays. They live in France, so sometimes I miss them. We wake up early at 6.45 am, have breakfast and start the first lesson at 8.40 am. There are six lessons every week. We also have two lessons on Saturday morning. There is no uniform, but we have to wear smart clothes. I am not great at studying, but I win a lot of prizes for football and tennis. 1. Who has only two teachers? A Steven B Martin C Thomas 2. Who has lessons at the weekend? A Steven B Martin C Thomas 13

14 3. Who has to wear a uniform? A Steven B Martin C Thomas 4. Who does well in sports competitions? A Steven B Martin C Thomas 5. Who can sometimes decide what to study? A Steven B Martin C Thomas 6. Whose parents live in a different country? A Steven s B Martin s C Thomas s 7. Who left his old school when his family moved house? A Steven B Martin C Thomas 8. Whose lessons start at the earliest time? A Steven s B Martin s C Thomas s Task 2. Read the article about snowboarding. For sentences 9-15, choose True (A) if the sentence agrees with the text and False (B) if it doesn't agree with the text. My snowboarding holiday by Hannah Lane I learned to ski when I was very small, because my parents took my brothers and me to ski with them almost as soon as we could walk. So when I started snowboarding at 11, I thought it would be easy. But on the first day of a family snowboarding holiday, I got on my new snowboard and went down a small hill and immediately fell! I couldn't stop, so if my brothers stopped in front of me, I made them fall too! They were brilliant because they showed me exactly what to do but they laughed at me, too! fourteen

15 When I started to improve, my parents decided to take us further up the mountain on a ski lift. As we got higher, we could see right over the tops of the trees below. When we got off the lift, we all jumped onto our snowboards and went down the mountain including me! And I was the first one of the family to get to the bottom! My knees hurt a bit afterwards, but I was fine. I still think I like skiing better, but I d certainly like to try snowboarding again! 9. Hannah was able to snowboard before she could ski. A True B False 10. The first time Hannah tried her new snowboard was on a big mountain. A True B False 11. When Hannah started snowboarding, she was surprised that it was so difficult. A True B False 12. Hannah s brothers helped her when she was learning to snowboard. A True B False 13. Hannah reached the bottom of the mountain faster than her brothers. A True B False 14. Hanna's fingers hurt the next day because she fell down. A True B False 15. Hanna has decided than she now prefers snowboarding to skiing. A True B False Transfer your answers to the answer sheet! fifteen

16 USE OF ENGLISH Time: 20 minutes Task 1. Read the article about bears. Choose the best word A, B or C for each gap 1-9. There are many different types of bears 1 North America. For example, there are lots of black bears living there, but 2 knows exactly how many there are. There could be 3,600,000 and 750,000, and strangely not 4 of them are black in colour. They can be brown, or 5 white. Bears mostly sleep 6 the cold weather in winter, so they are very hungry when they wake up. They eat a lot of different things, such 7 leaves and fruit, and many people say they also love eating honey. Bears are very good 8 climbing trees, and baby bears 9 to climb when they are very young. 1. A in B by C on 2. A anyone B everyone C nobody 3. A between B either C about 4. A one B all C each 5. A even B always C still 6. A since B from C during 7. A like B as C than 8. A for B with C at 9. A learn B learned C learning Task 2. Read sentences about a boy who likes chess. Choose the best word A, B or C for each gap. 10. Robbie's dad Robbie to play chess when he was seven years old. A learned B taught C knew 16

17 11. When Robbie started playing chess, his dad explained things to him very. A especially B certainly C carefully 12. Robbie likes to most of his free time playing chess. A spend B take C stay 13. Last term, Robbie a chess club at his school. A kept B joined C belonged 14. Robbie plays against the club s best players to make his game improves. A right B sure C correct 15. Robbie was very happy when he won a in a chess competition. A present B gift C prize Transfer your answers to the answer sheet! WRITING Time: 15 minutes Imagine that you are going to visit a museum soon. Write an to your friend and ask her/him to join you. Do not write down the address. Do not forget to write about: the date and the name of the museum you are going to visit why you want to go there the program of your visit You should write about words. 17

18 Participants ID number ANSWER SHEET LISTENING 1 A B 2 A B 3 A B 4 A B 5 A B

19 USE OF ENGLISH 1 A B C 2 A B C 3 A B C 4 A B C 5 A B C 6 A B C 7 A B C 8 A B C 9 A B C 10 A B C 11 A B C 12 A B C 13 A B C 14 A B C 15 A B C WRITING 19

20 Evaluation criteria and scoring Listening maximum score 5. The task is checked by the keys. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. For an incorrect answer or no answer, 0 points are given. Reading - the maximum number of points is 15. The task is checked by keys. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. For an incorrect answer or no answer, 0 points are given. Use of English - the maximum number of points is 15. The task is checked by keys. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. For an incorrect answer or no answer, 0 points are given. Writing - the maximum number of points is 10. The task is evaluated according to the Criteria for assessment. When summing up the results, the points for all competitions are summed up. The maximum number of points for all competitions is 45 points. twenty

21 WRITING - EVALUATION CRITERIA Maximum points: 10 Attention! With a score of 0 on the criterion "Content", a total score of 0 is set. CONTENT ORGANIZATION AND LANGUAGE FORMAT OF THE TEXT (maximum 5 points) (maximum 3 points) 3 points The communicative task is fully completed, an invitation to a friend is written according to the specified parameters. Organization (maximum 2 points) Vocabulary (maximum 2 points) Grammar (maximum 2 points) Spelling and punctuation (maximum 1 point) 1. The participant observes the rules of courtesy; 2. The participant maintains an informal writing style; 3. The participant indicates the date and place of the meeting; 4. The participant gives arguments in favor of going to this particular museum; 5. The participant describes the program of the meeting. The volume of work either corresponds to the given one, or deviates from the given one by no more than 10% (increasing no more than 66 words 2) or 10% downward (no less than 45 words). 2 If the letter consists of 67 or more words, the first 60 words are subject to verification. 21

22 2 points 2 points 2 points 2 points The text is correctly divided into paragraphs. The logic of construction of the text is not violated. The communicative task is completed. The partially composed text is an invitation letter with the given parameters. However, one of the above aspects was not fulfilled in the work. The participant demonstrates the vocabulary required to write an invitation letter. The work has 1 2 minor errors in terms of lexical design. The participant demonstrates the competent appropriate use of grammatical structures. and The work has 1 2 minor grammatical errors. 1 point 1 point 1 point 1 point 1 point There are separate violations of logic or paragraph division of the text. The communicative task is completed. The partially composed text is an invitation letter with the given parameters. However, 2 of the above aspects are not fulfilled in the work. The participant demonstrates the vocabulary required to write an invitation letter. There are 3-4 minor lexical errors in the work. The participant demonstrates the competent appropriate use of grammatical structures. and There are 3-4 minor grammatical errors in the work. There are minor (no more than 4) spelling and punctuation errors in the work. 0 points 0 points 0 points 0 points 0 points The communicative task was not completed. The content of the letter does not meet the specified parameters. Or 3 or more of the above aspects are not fulfilled. Or: Less than 45 words. There is no paragraph division of the text. The participant demonstrates an extremely limited vocabulary. Or: there are numerous errors in the use of vocabulary (5 or more). The text contains numerous grammatical errors that make it difficult to understand (5 or more). The text contains numerous spelling and punctuation errors that make it difficult to understand (5 or more). 22

23 The procedure for checking works in the writing competition Each work is checked without fail by two experts who work independently of each other (no marks are allowed on the work), each expert enters his marks in his assessment protocol; If the discrepancy in the assessments of experts does not exceed two points, then the average score is set. For example, if the first expert puts 9 points, and the second 8 points, the final mark is 9 points; if the first expert puts 9 points, and the second 7 points, the final mark is 8 points; If the discrepancy in the assessments of experts is three or four points, then another check is assigned, in this case the two closest assessments are to be averaged; "Controversial" works (in the case of a large discrepancy of 5 or more points) are checked and discussed collectively. For each participant, the points received for each competition are summed up. EVALUATION PROTOCOL OF THE WRITING COMPETITION The maximum number of points that can be received for the Writing contest is 10 (ten). Expert (full name) Participant ID K1 Content K2 Organization K3 Vocabulary K4 Grammar K5 Spelling Punctuation and Score (max 10) 23

24 Objects of control Methodological recommendations Number and type of tasks (all tasks correspond to A1-A2 on the scale of the Council of Europe in terms of complexity) 1 Listening Task for correlating information (alternative choice) 2 Reading 1. Task for finding the necessary information (Multiple choice). 2. The task of understanding the main content of what was read (alternative choice). 3 Vocabulary 1. Grammar task (Multiple - choice). grammar 2. Lexical task (Multiple ical choice). test 4 Writing A productive written statement in the format of an invitation to spend free time together Number of points Time to complete section 5 5 min min. 20 min min. (volume of words). TOTAL minutes Logistics support of competitions (see page 12 of the Guidelines for the development of tasks for the school stage) Keys and transcription of texts for listening LISTENING 1 B 2 B 3 A 4 A 5 B READING 1 B 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 B 11 A 12 A 24

25 13 A 14 B 15 B USE OF ENGLISH 1 A 2 C 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 B 11 C 12 A 13 B 14 B 15 C Script Listening For questions 1-5, listen to Carl, Linda and Sam phoning The Book Program and decide whether the information in the sentences is true (A) or false (B). You will hear the text twice. Now you have 30 seconds to look through the statements. (pause 30 seconds) Now we begin. Presenter Our next caller is Carl from Essex. Hello Carl. Carl Hi. Presenter What do you think, Carl? Do good books make good films? Carl Well, I ve read a lot of books and then seen the films, and I usually think that the books are better. For example, I loved the Lord of the Rings books but I didn't like the films very much. Thank you Carl. Our next caller is Linda from Manchester. Hello Linda. Linda Hi. Well, what I think is that today people don't read very much. But they go to the cinema. And sometimes after they have seen a film of a book then they go and buy the book, so that's a good thing because they read more. Presenter But do you think good books make good films? 25

26 Linda Yes, I ve read a lot of good books and then I ve seen the films and I ve loved them all, The Exorcist, Harry Potter, Gone with the Wind. They're all great books and great films. Thank you, Linda. And our last caller is Sam from Cardiff. Hello Sam. What do you think about our question today? Sam I think it depends. I think good films don't usually make good films. But I ve seen some films which I think are better than the books. That's usually because the book wasn't very good. Presenter So bad books can make good films? Sam That's right. Presenter Give an example. Sam Well, the James Bond films. The books aren't very good, but some of the films are great, like Goldfinger, or From Russia with Love. Thank you, Sam. Bye. Now you have 20 seconds to do the task. Now listen to the text again. Now you have 20 seconds to complete the task. Transfer your answers into your answer sheet. This is the end of the Listening task. 26

27 Grade 7-8 Activity Kit LISTENING Time: 10 minutes Task 1. You will hear a conversation between a boy, Oliver, and a girl, Hannah, about a party. For each item (1-5) decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, choose A (True). If it is not correct, choose B (False). You will hear the text twice. 1. Hannah shared a birthday party with her sister last year. A True B False 2. They agree that the barbecue was a good idea. A True B False 3. Hannah's grandmother will let her use her house for her party. A True B False 4. Oliver would like to have a party in his grandmother's flat. A True B False 5. Hannah will ask her parents before booking the school canteen. A True B False Task 2. You will hear a man called Simon Webster talking about being a racing driver. For each question (6-10) choose the correct answer A, B or C. You will hear the text twice. 6. Simon asks other drivers for advice when he A has made a mistake on a racing track. B is unsure which racing track to use. C uses a racing track for the first time. 7. When do races take place? A during part of the year B on most days during the week C mainly on Fridays 27

28 8. What problem does Simon have? A He can't stop training before a race. B He can't improve any more. C He doesn't ever have holidays. 9. What does he say is most important for a racing driver? A not getting frightened B being able to concentrate C knowing how a car works 10. How did he become interested in cars? A His friends were keen on motor racing. B He enjoyed watching motor-racing on TV. C His father took him to races. Transfer your answers to the answer sheet! READING Time: 30 minutes Task 1. Look at the sentences below about the people who have visited Antarctica. Read the text and decide if each sentence is true or false according to the text. If it is true, choose A on your Answer Sheet. If it is false, choose B on your Answer Sheet. 1. Sara Wheeler went to Antarctica to do some scientific research. A True B False 2. Sara Wheeler was surprised by how few artists have traveled to Antarctica. A True B False 3. Philip Hughes was one of many artists to have paintings on display at the Antarctica exhibition. A True B False 28

29 4. By 1975, Hughes realized that he needed to find other locations for his work. A True B False 5. Sara Wheeler particularly liked the fact that Antarctica is so different from other places on earth. A True B False 6. One of Hughes s paintings brought back happy memories of Antarctica for Sara Wheeler. A True B False 7. Hughes had to wear gloves whenever he drew a picture outdoors in Antarctica. A True B False 8. Hughes completed the paintings Christmas Day at Rothera outdoors. A True B False 9. Hughes found it challenging to paint mainly in white. A True B False 10. Hughes missed having his mobile phone in Antarctica. A True B False ANTARCTICA Journalist Sara Wheeler writes about her meeting with the artist Philip Hughes and the discussion they had about their experiences in Antarctica. Antarctica has had a powerful effect on both explorers and scientists. In 1994 I discovered why, when I spent seven months there collecting material for a travel book. I have often thought the amazing emptiness of this region would attract the interest of many landscape painters and yet, throughout history, only a small number have actually been there. In 2003, one of them, the 67-year-old painter Philip Hughes, opened a one-man show in London called simply Antarctica. Until 1975, Hughes s paintings were mostly of the South Downs in England, but at this point, Hughes decided he 29

30 wanted to paint more distant lands. First, he traveled to South America. Then in 2001, he spent five weeks in Antarctica, dividing his time between Rothera, a British research center on Adelaide Island, and a science camp up on the West Antarctic ice sheet. Antarctica simply isn't like anywhere else on this planet and for me this was the best thing about my visit. It is one-and-a-half times bigger than the United States but it is very peaceful. It also never gets dark. When I went to Hughes s show, we looked at his paintings together. He explained, I was just amazed by the beauty of Antarctica. It didn't matter that our nearest neighbors were 800 kilometers away. The temperatures can be extreme. At my camp they reached -115 C and at times I felt terrible. But back in England, looking at Hughes s painting Leonie Island at Midnight, I remembered what Antarctica was like when a storm ended. It was as if the world was new. Then I wondered why I came back. Hughes was there in summer, and the temperatures were around zero. He could draw in these conditions but if it got colder, he needed to wear gloves. The picture Christmas Day at Rothera was drawn on paper while Hughes sat on the ice. He didn't put paint on it until later when he went inside, a common technique with Hughes. Although there are colors in Antarctica, most of the continent is white. The technical difficulty involved in painting there, explained Hughes, was working in white. When I used even a little blue and green, I had to work very carefully. I asked Hughes why he went to Antarctica. Today, people are controlled by things like mobile phones and . I had to get away from this. You only become aware of the absence, say, of planes overhead, when there aren't any. When it's only you and the natural world, you completely understand its power. Task 2. Five people (11-15) all want to buy a book for children. There are descriptions of eight books below (A-H). Decide which book would be the most suitable for these people to buy. You won't need some of the books. For questions 11-15, write the correct letter (A-H) on your answer sheet. thirty

31 11. Gina wants a book for her nephew who is interested in nature. He s always asking questions about the world around him and Gina thinks he s ready to start learning a few simple facts. 12. Bruno is looking for the book his daughter will enjoy reading and which will also help with a project she is doing at school. She has to describe an important event from the past. 13. Edita s son loves animals and she would like to buy him a book with beautiful pictures and a strong message about the need to respect the environment. 14. Tony wants to buy a novel for his teenage sister. She likes stories that are true to life and that show people in difficult situations. 15. Lydia is looking for a book about animals for her granddaughter, who cannot read yet. She wants a book with several stories in it, and some attractive pictures. BOOKS FOR CHILDREN A I Wonder Why The wonders of science come alive for children in this delightful book. As well as enjoying the lovely pictures, they will also learn about how plants grow, see how different birds care for their young and discover some interesting information about insects. B Basic Technology A love of knowledge begins early with this colorful reference book. Find out interesting facts and learn about important inventions in the last century. If you know a child who asks questions like What make a car go?, then this is the book for you. C Painting History This is a beautiful book showing famous paintings through history. Each painting is described in detail, including simple facts about the people shown in them and their lives. Children are invited to look more closely at the pictures and to try some of the techniques themselves. 31

32 D The Hunter In this exciting story, wonderfully illustrated by a famous wildlife artist, Jamina finds a baby elephant whose mother was killed by hunters. Looking for help, she travels back through the African bush and is able to enjoy the nature all around her. Her journey teaches her the importance of doing all we can to save and protect our world. E Forest tales This book is a collection of seven well-known animal stories from different cultures around the world. They are particularly suitable for reading aloud and would make good bedtime stories. Each story is about six pages long with bright and colorful pictures on every page. F Journey to the Past Lying ill in bed, Lucien knows he is not like other boys. In this imaginative story he finds out just how different he is. He discovers that he has the power to transport his mind through space and time. This amazing novel will appeal to those who read to escape from the real world. G Time Travelers This very interesting set of stories shows what life was really like for people at certain points in history the building of the Eiffel Tower, the sinking of the Titanic, the first moon landing. Written as diaries, these stories are historically accurate. H Joanna s Search Joanna was brought up by her aunt and uncle and has never known her parents. At 14, she decides to try and find the answers to the questions that she has always asked herself Who am I?, Where do I come from? The novel tells the moving yet funny story of Joanna s search for her identity. Transfer your answers to the answer sheet! USE OF ENGLISH 32

33 Time: 20 minutes Task 1. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each gap. For questions 1-10 mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your Answer Sheet. INVENTIONS Great inventions are ideas that can sometimes change the world. The invention of the radio has brought (1) places closer together, and the car has made it possible to (2) a long way. An invention might also be a better way of doing something for example, a tool (3) make a job easier, or a new farming method. Many inventions, like musical instruments or sports equipment, have made life more comfortable and enjoyable. The range of inventions is enormous. Not (4) good idea leads to immediate (5), however. (6) the 15 th century, Leonardo da Vinci wrote down his idea for chains (7) were able to drive machines but the technology to (8) these chains did not (9) then. This shows that a great invention may be unworkable (10) a future development makes it possible. 1. A far B absent C other D distant 2. A reach B travel C transport D arrive 3. A for B with C to D of 4. A every B any C all D each 5. A prize B success C winner D victory 6. A Between B At C During D Since 7. A what B who C which D where 8. A produce B promote C record D put 9. A last B exist C happen D continue 10.A if B while C until D when Task 2. Read the gapped sentences below (11-15) and choose the correct word A, B or C for each gap. Mark the correct letters on your Answer Sheet. 33

34 11. When I go to a theatre, I like smart clothes. A wear B wearing C am wearing 12. In my country, young people wear jeans. A tight B tights C tight 13. My best friend can paint colorful pictures. A colorful B color C colored 14. I first my best friend when I started primary school. A was meeting B have met C met 15. My new school three years ago. A built B was built C has been built Transfer your answers to the answer sheet! WRITING Time: 30 minutes Imagine that you are going to watch a good movie in the cinema soon. Write an letter to your friend and ask her/him to join you. Do not write down the address. Do not forget to write about: the date and the name of the cinema you are going to visit why you want to go there and why you have chosen this movie the program of your visit You should write about words. 34

35 Participants ID number ANSWER SHEET LISTENING 1 A B 2 A B 3 A B 4 A B 5 A B 6 A B C 7 A B C 8 A B C 9 A B C 10 A B C READING 1 A B 2 A B 3 A B 4 A B 5 A B 6 A B 7 A B 8 A B 9 A B 10 A B USE OF ENGLISH 35

36 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D 4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D 7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D 10 A B C D 11 A B C 12 A B C 13 A B C 14 A B C 15 A B C WRITING 36

37 Evaluation criteria and scoring Listening maximum score 10. The task is checked by the keys. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. For an incorrect answer or no answer, 0 points are given. Reading - the maximum number of points is 15. The task is checked by keys. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. For an incorrect answer or no answer, 0 points are given. Use of English - the maximum number of points is 15. The task is checked by keys. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. For an incorrect answer or no answer, 0 points are given. Writing - the maximum number of points is 10. The task is evaluated according to the Criteria for assessment. When summing up the results, the points for all competitions are summed up. The maximum number of points for all competitions is 50 points. 37

38 WRITING - EVALUATION CRITERIA Maximum points: 10 Attention! With a score of 0 for the criterion "Content", a total score of 0 is given. CONTENT (maximum 3 points) ORGANIZATION AND LANGUAGE FORMAT OF THE TEXT (maximum 5 points) 3 points The communicative task is fully completed, an invitation to a friend is written according to the specified parameters. Organization (maximum 2 points) Vocabulary (maximum 2 points) Grammar (maximum 2 points) Spelling and punctuation (maximum 1 point) 1. The participant observes the rules of courtesy; 2. The participant maintains an informal writing style; 3. The participant indicates the date and place of the meeting; 4. The participant gives arguments in favor of going to this particular film; 5. The participant describes the program of the meeting. The volume of work either corresponds to the given one, or deviates from the given one by no more than 10% (increasing no more than 132 words 3) or 10% downward (no less than 90 words). 3 If the letter consists of 133 or more words, the first 120 words are subject to verification. 38

39 2 points 2 points 2 points 2 points The text is correctly divided into paragraphs. The logic of construction of the text is not violated. The communicative task is completed. The partially composed text is an invitation letter with the given parameters. However, one of the above aspects was not fulfilled in the work. The participant demonstrates the vocabulary required to write an invitation letter. The work has 1 2 minor errors in terms of lexical design. The participant demonstrates the competent appropriate use of grammatical structures. and The work has 1 2 minor grammatical errors. 1 point 1 point 1 point 1 point 1 point There are separate violations of logic or paragraph division of the text. The communicative task is completed. The partially composed text is an invitation letter with the given parameters. However, 2 of the above aspects are not fulfilled in the work. The participant demonstrates the vocabulary required to write an invitation letter. There are 3-4 minor lexical errors in the work. The participant demonstrates the competent appropriate use of grammatical structures. and There are 3-4 minor grammatical errors in the work. There are minor (no more than 4) spelling and punctuation errors in the work. 0 points 0 points 0 points 0 points 0 points The communicative task was not completed. The content of the letter does not meet the specified parameters. Or 3 or more of the above aspects are not fulfilled. Or: Less than 90 words. There is no paragraph division of the text. The participant demonstrates an extremely limited vocabulary. Or: there are numerous errors in the use of vocabulary (5 or more). The text contains numerous grammatical errors that make it difficult to understand (5 or more). The text contains numerous spelling and punctuation errors that make it difficult to understand (5 or more). 39

40 The procedure for checking works in the writing competition Each work is checked without fail by two experts who work independently of each other (no marks are allowed on the works), each expert enters his marks in his assessment protocol; If the discrepancy in the assessments of experts does not exceed two points, then the average score is set. For example, if the first expert puts 9 points, and the second 8 points, the final mark is 9 points; if the first expert puts 9 points, and the second 7 points, the final mark is 8 points; If the discrepancy in the assessments of experts is three or four points, then another check is assigned, in this case the two closest assessments are to be averaged; "Controversial" works (in the case of a large discrepancy of 5 or more points) are checked and discussed collectively. For each participant, the points received for each competition are summed up. EVALUATION PROTOCOL OF THE WRITING COMPETITION The maximum number of points that can be received for the Writing contest is 10 (ten). Expert (full name) Participant ID K1 Content K2 Organization K3 Vocabulary K4 Grammar K5 Spelling and punctuation Sum of points (max 10) 40

41 Guidelines Contests Number and type of tasks (all tasks correspond to B1 on the scale of the Council of Europe in terms of complexity) 1 Listening 1. An alternative choice task. 2. Multiple choice task (from three options) 2 Reading 1. Task for understanding the main content of the text (True or False). 2. The task of matching and searching for the necessary information in the text (Multiple 3 Use of English Matching). 1. Lexico-grammatical task (Multiple choice). 2. Grammar task (Multiple choice). 4 Writing A productive written statement in the format of an invitation to spend free time together (word volume). Number of points Time to complete the section 10 min. 30 minutes. 20 min min. TOTAL minutes Logistics support of competitions (see page 12 of the Guidelines for the development of tasks for the school stage) Keys and transcription of texts for listening LISTENING B B A B A C A B B C READING B A B A A A B B A B A C D H E 41

42 USE OF ENGLISH D B C A B C C A B C B C A C B Script Listening Part 1 For items 1-6 listen to a conversation between a boy, Oliver, and a girl, Hannah, about a party. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. Choose the correct answer True or False according to the text you hear. You will hear the text twice. Now you have 30 seconds to look through the items. Now we begin. Oliver: Hi, Hannah. How are you? Hannah: Hello, Oliver. You can help me decide what to do about my birthday. Oliver: You had your birthday in the summer. Hannah: That was my sister's party you came to. My birthday s in the spring very soon in fact. It would be good if my sister and I could share a party as we ve got the same friends but our birthdays are three months apart. Oliver: Well, that was a good party last summer. The barbecue went well and everyone enjoyed dancing. Hannah: But it was really hard work. Because there were so many people, we couldn't cook all the food at the same time and some got burnt, so I m not sure if I would do that again. Oliver: But the house was really good for a party. Hannah: We had it at my grandmother's because we haven't got a garden. I thought she d be angry afterwards because a few things were broken but she said I can have my party there if I want. She's so nice. Oliver: That's amazing. I would never have a party in my grandmother's flat. I'd be so worried, I wouldn't enjoy it. Hannah: Well, I prefer going out but I don't know where to go because everything's so expensive. Oliver: Well, you could ask everyone to a restaurant they're not all expensive. What about the new Indian restaurant? Indian food is my favourite. Hannah: Well, I prefer Chinese food but most of my friends would rather eat Italian. So that's no good. And some people are vegetarian and some don't eat fish. It's really difficult. Oliver: You could hire the school canteen and get everyone to bring some food. Then there would be a mixture for everyone. Hannah: That's a good idea and we could have music there too. I ll have to ask my mum and dad because we d have to pay to hire it. If they say yes, will you come with me to find out? Oliver: course. Now listen again. 42

43 Part 2 For items 7-12 listen to a part of interview with Simon Webster talking about being a racing driver. Choose the correct answer A, B or C according to the text you hear. You will hear the text twice. Now you have 30 seconds to look through the items. Now we begin. Interviewer: In today's Sporting World, we have a racing driver with us Simon Webster. Welcome, Simon. Tell me, at the age of twenty-one, do you find it helpful to talk to older drivers? Simon: I do, and they are happy to give advice if I need it. I always talk to drivers with more experience if I m going to drive on a track I haven't raced on before. I try to get as much information as possible, so I don't make any mistakes. Interviewer: You must get very tired. Simon: Well, we race at weekends, and on Fridays we re getting everything ready but I usually only do a race every three weeks and not in the winter. We race from April to October. Interviewer: I see. And whats the hardest thing for you about being a racing driver? Simon: I find it very difficult to take time off. I do go away on holiday, probably not as often as I should. But the mistake I always make before a race is to push myself to keep training when really I should rest. When I train too much, I'm tired when the race actually starts. The thing is I know I can continue to get better. Interviewer: What skills do you need to be a top racing driver? Simon: You do need to know a certain amount about how the car works but other people will check the car for you. I always think when you re actually racing it helps to be a tiny bit frightened as it means you really pay attention. That's really important if you stop concentrating it could be very dangerous. Interviewer: A lot of small boys are keen on cars. How did you get interested? Simon: My friends were all more interested in football but my dad did a bit of racing. I started going to race tracks with him. As soon as he let me try, he realized I would be good at it and wanted me to succeed. I know it's really popular now with kids who watch it on TV but I never did. Interviewer: What about young racing drivers? What advice would you give them? Simon: Some people say you should study and go to university first. The problem is, if you do that you'll be too old when you have enough time. If you really want to be a top racing driver, you need to train and get as fit as you can by going to the gym. Don't risk playing other sports because you might get hurt. Interviewer: Well, thank you very much for talking to us today. Simon: Thank you. Now you have 20 seconds to check your answers. Now listen to the text again. Now you have 20 seconds to complete the task and transfer your answers into your Answer Sheets. This is the end of the Listening task. 43

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